OMG Prime number theorem!!! I actually loved it! So today I solved a quite fancy NT problem with other people's help though!
Problem: Prove that there exists an interval of the [n^2,(n+1)^2] which contains at least 1000 primes.
Proof 1: By PNT, if n is large enough \pi(n) ~ \frac{n}{\log(n)}
So f(n)=\pi( {n+1}^2)-\pi( n^2) = \frac{(n+1)^2}{\log({n+1}^2)}- \frac{n^2}{\log(n^2)}
= \frac{(n+1)^2}{2\log({n+1})}- \frac{n^2}{2\log(n)}
Then f'(n)= \frac{(2n+2)\log(n+1)-(n+1)}{2[\log(n+1)]^2}-\frac{2n\log(n)-n}{2[\log(n)]^2}
=\frac{n+1}{\log(n+1)}+\frac{n}{2[\log(n)]^2}- (\frac{n}{\log(n)}+\frac{n+1}{2[\log(n+1)]^2})
Take h(x)= \frac{(x)}{\log(x)}, g(x)=\frac{x}{2\log^2(x)}
we have basically (h(n+1)-h(n))>>>( g(n+1)-g(n)) since h grows faster than g we have h(n+1)-h(n) > (g(n+1)-g(n) for large enough n.
Infact f'(n) is strictly increasing.
Now, by MVT, note that there exist t_1 such that f(2)-f(1)=f'(t_1), t\in [1,2]
Similarly there exist t_2 such that f(3)-f(2)=f'(t_2), t\in [2,3]
and so on, there exist t_{n-1} such that f(n)-f(n)=f'(t_{n-1}), t\in [n-1,n]
So f(n)-f(1) tends to infinity as f' is increasing and positive..
So f(n) is increasing and diverges!
Tonight I will revise O notation and make notes! Hopefully I can survive!
Sunaina
Ohh nicee fancy
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