I thought to revise David Burton and try out some problems which I didn't do. It's been almost 2 years since I touched that book so let's see!
Also, this set of problems/notes is quite weird since it's actually a memory lane. You will get to know on your own! I started with proving a problem, remembered another problem and then another and so on! It was quite fun cause all these questions were the ones I really wanted to solve!
And this is part1 or else the post would be too long.
Problem1: Prove that for n\ge 1
\binom{n}{r}<\binom{n}{r+1}
iff 0\le r\le \frac{n-1}{2}
Proof: We show that \binom{n}{r}<\binom{n}{r+1} for 0\le r\le \frac{n-1}{2} and use the fact that \binom{n}{n-r}=\binom{n}{r}
Note that \binom{n}{r}= \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}, \binom{n}{r+1}=\frac{n!}{(r+1)!(n-r-1)!}
Comparing, it's enough to show that \frac{1}{n-r}<\frac{1}{r+1}\text{ or show } n-r>r+1
which is true as 0\le r\le \frac{n-1}{2}
Problem2: Show that the expressions \frac{ (2n)!}{n!(n+1)!} integers.
Proof: Now, one way of proving this is \frac{(2n+1)!}{n!(n+1)!}=\frac{2n+1}{n}\cdot \frac{(2n)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)}=\frac{2n+1}{n}\cdot \binom{2n-1}{n+1}\in \Bbb Z
but \gcd(n,2n+1)=1\implies n|\binom{2n}{n-1}
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It's the Catalan numbers formula btw :P
Hmm... I did have another idea..
The other possible way I think is using v_p.
Let p be an odd prime dividing n then v_p\left(\frac{(2n)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)!}\right)=v_p(2n!)-v_p(n-1!)-v_p(n+1!)
=\frac{2n-s_p(2n)-n+1+s_p(n-1)-n-1+s_p(n+1!)}{p-1}=\frac{s_p(n-1)+s_p(n+1)-s_p(2n)}{p-1}
where s_p denotes the sum of digits of n is base p.
Since p|n\implies s_p(n+1)=s_p(n)+1.
And it is well known that p-1|x-s_p(x).
Now, to show that n|\left(\frac{(2n)!}{n!(n+1)!}\right) enough to show that s_p(n-1)+s_p(n)+1-s_p(2n)\ge v_p(n)\cdot (p-1)
When 2|n note that v_2(\frac{(2n)!}{n!(n+1)!})=v_2(\frac{(2n+1)!}{n!(n+1)!})=v_2(\binom{2n+1}{n})
Talking about Legendre, I should try to prove this identity after a few problems and also try to prove the Catalan numbers identity!
Problem3: Proof that \frac{(2n)!}{2^n} is an integer.
Proof: Note that v_2(x\cdot (x+1)\cdot (x+2)\cdot (x+3))\ge 3.
So v_2((2n)!)\ge [3\times \frac{2n-2}{4}]\ge n
Another proof would be,
Consider a set S containing 2 copies of n distinct elements. Then S has total 2n objects.
Then, the total number of permutations of these objects =\frac{(2n)!}{(2!)^n}=\frac{(2n)!}{2^n}.
Since the number of permutations is an integer, therefore, \dfrac{(2n)!}{2^n} is an integer.
Actually, this method is also useful when we have to show that x!y!z!| (x+y+z)!.
Problem 4: Prove that x_1!x_2!\dots x_n!| (x_1+x_2+\dots+x_n)!
Proof: Left to the reader :P
Problem5: Prove that 2^n does not divide n!
Proof: By legendre, v_p(n!)=n-s(2^n)<n.
Here are two pretty well known problems which I find pretty hard if induction didn't exists
Problem6: Prove that \frac{2n!}{n!2^n} is an integer.
Proof: We use induction. For n=1 it's true.
Suppose it's true for n=k. We will show that it's true for n=k+1.
Note that \frac{(2k+2)!}{(k+1)!2^{k+1}}=(2k+1)\cdot \frac{(2k+2)}{k+1}\cdot\frac{(2k)!}{(k)!2^{k+1}}=(2k+1)\cdot \frac{(2k)!}{(k)!2^{k}}\in \Bbb Z
Problem 7: Prove that \frac{3n!}{n!6^n} is an integer.
Proof: Note that 2^n|2n!|\frac{3n!}{n!}.
So enough to show that 3^n|\frac{3n!}{n!3^n} whose proof is similar to the above.
Problem 8: Establish the inequality 2^n<\binom{2n}{n}<2^{2n}.
Proof: Note that \frac{2n!}{n!2^n}\in \Bbb Z^{+}\implies 2^n<\binom{2n}{n}.
Also, we have \binom{2n}{n}=\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot \dots \cdot (2n-1)}{2\cdot 4\cdot \dots 2n}2^{2n}.
This simply manipulations.
But note that \dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot \dots \cdot (2n-1)}{2\cdot 4\cdot \dots 2n}\le 1\implies \binom{2n}{n}<2^{2n}.
Problem 9: Prove that sum of the first n triangle numbers is less 2 that is,
\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{3}+\dots+\frac{1}{t_n}<2
Proof: Note that we just have \frac{2}{1\cdot 2}+\frac{2}{2\cdot 3}+\dots+\frac{2}{n(n+1)}=2\cdot {1-\frac{1}{n+1}}<2
Problem 10: Fibonacci addition law F_{n+m} = F_{n-1}F_m + F_n F_{m+1}
Proof: It's simply induction.
We varry n. Say it's true for n=1,\dots, k. We will show that n=k+1.
Then F_{k+1+m}=F_{k+m}+F_{k-1+m}=F_{k-1}F_m+F_kF_{m+1}+F_{k-2}F_{m}+F_{k-1}F_{m+1}
=F_kF_m+F_{k+1}F_{m+1}
Okie, now I think the following is a nice problem for the existence of the formula of Fibonacci numbers.
Problem 11: Show that \frac{f_{2k+2}} { f_{k+1} } = \frac{f_{2k} } { f_k } + \frac{f_{2k-2} } {f_{k-1} }
Proof: Show that \frac{f_{2k+2}} { f_{k+1} } = \frac{f_{2k} } { f_k } + \frac{f_{2k-2} } {f_{k-1} }
I used the formula for Fibonacci i.e
F_n=\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\left(\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^n-\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^n\right).
Then \frac{f_{2k+2}} { f_{k+1} }=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k+1}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k+1}
And we get \frac{f_{2k}} { f_{k} }=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k}
And \frac{f_{2k-2}} { f_{k-1} }=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k-1}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k-1}
Or show \left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k+1}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k+1}= \left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k}+\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k-1}+\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k-1}
But note that both \left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right), \left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right) are roots of x^2=x+1. So x^{k+1}=x^{k}+x^{k-1}
So we get that \left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k+1}=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k}+\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^{k-1}
And similarly for \left(\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}\right).
Problem 12: Prove by induction on Fibonacci numbers: show that f_n\mid f_{2n}
Proof: Note that
\frac{f_{2k+2}} { f_{k+1} } = \frac{f_{2k} } { f_k } + \frac{f_{2k-2} } {f_{k-1} }
By induction, we can assume that \frac{f_{2k} } { f_k }, \frac{f_{2k-2} } {f_{k-1} } are integers.
Problem 13: Prove that \gcd(F_n,F_m) = F_{\gcd(n,m)}
Proof: Using formula for we get that F_{\gcd(n,m)}|F_n, F_m\implies F_{\gcd(m,n)}|\gcd(F_n,F_m)
Now \gcd(n,m)=mx+ny for some x,y by bezout. But F_{\gcd(n,m)}= F_{mx-1}F_{ny}+F_{mx}F_{ny+1}.
But \gcd(F_n,F_m)|F_{mx-1}F_{ny}+F_{mx}F_{ny+1}=F_{\gcd(n,m)}
\implies \gcd(F_n,F_m) = F_{\gcd(n,m)}.
Well, I am still left to prove the legendre formula.
Theorem: v_p(n!)=\frac{n-s_p(n)}{p-1}
Proof: Let n=n_lp^l+\dots+n_1p+n_0 in base p.
Then \lfloor{\frac{n}{p^i}}\rfloor=n_lp^{l-i}+\dots+n_{i+1}p+n_i.
Then v_p(n!)=\sum_{i=1}^l \lfloor {\frac{n!}{p^i}} \rfloor =\sum_{i=1}^l n_lp^{l-i}+\dots+n_{i+1}p+n_i.
Which is actually, n_l\sum_{i=1}^l p^{l-i}+n_{l-1}\sum_{i=1}^l p^{l-i-1}+\dots +n_{i+1}
=\frac{1}{p-1}\left( n_l\cdot (p^{l}-p)+n_{l-1}\cdot (p^{l-1}-p)+\dots +n_{i+1}\cdot (p-1)\right)
=\frac{n-s_p(p)}{p-1}
See you soon with the next post!
Sunaina💜
Problem 6 without induction:
\frac{2n!}{n!2^n}
=\frac{2n\times 2(n-1)\times .....\times 4\times ×2×(product of the odd terms)}{n!2^n}
=\frac{2^n\times n!\times product of odd terms}{n!2^n}
Similar approach can be taken towards Problem 7ReplyDelete
Yeah, it was easy without induction too. For Problem 7, we break 3n! to get 3^n.n! (from 3i terms) along with products of the form (3i-1) and (3i-2). Then the 2's out of (3i-1) and (3i-2) will equal 2^n, for n both even and odd.
Deleteall the problems are easy :P
DeleteYep I think both work! Thanks for sharing!
DeleteYou might want to recheck your problem statement for P2 :wayaw:
ReplyDelete:O yess Thanks for commenting!
DeleteReally nice blog though! IMOSL N8 series when? :prayge:
ReplyDelete~~lol~~
Delete